Accidentally Killing A Fellow Muslim

Does the Quran teach the same moral prescriptions/obligations as the Bible, either for what behaviors are base sins or what actions are just and unjust in response to them?  As Semitic/Abrahamic religions, some expect them to overlap to a great extent on matters of morality, general metaphysics, eschatology, and so on.  Sometimes they do, and sometimes not, but you could never know from hearsay.  You would have to not make any assumptions and read both the Bible and the Quran to find out.  Ultimately, the two are in frequent philosophical conflict with each other.  One of many examples that could be selected (I have written about others more than once) is how the Quran handles manslaughter by one Muslim against another.

The Torah does distinguish between murder and manslaughter (Exodus 21:12-14), with murder being a sin deserving execution and manslaughter not being a sin, though still something severe enough that the avenger of blood can kill someone for it without being guilty of murder themself (Numbers 35:26-27, Deuteronomy 19:4-7).  If the Quran and by extension the Islamic philosophy it puts forth is true, the Torah is true as a prerequisite (Surah 2:53, 3:3, 5:46).  While the specific cities of refuge mentioned in Mosaic Law for the Israelites were to be in the Promised Land, and thus those cities could not be used by everyone in the world who performs manslaughter or for all people in future times, the way the Torah treats manslaughter is very different from how the Quran does.

Surah 4:92 says that the accidental killing of a Muslim by another Muslim, making the act manslaughter rather than murder, is to be followed by restitution to surviving family members on the part of the perpetrator.  Alongside this compensation, the person who accidentally killed another is to set free one Muslim slave.  The manslaughterer is to merely free a Muslim slave if the dead person's relatives are not Muslims themselves.  In place of the compensation, someone without the servants or money to follow these requirements is to fast for two months--itself a deviation from what the Torah says of offenders who cannot afford whatever restitution is just for them to pay.  They are to become temporary servants to work away their debt (Exodus 22:3).

The Quran does say killing people for murder is permitted in Surah 5:32, but this is an obligation according to the Torah that money cannot buy someone deliverance from (Numbers 35:31), unlike certain cases of neglect that leads to death (Exodus 21:28-32).  It is not formally prescribed here in the Quran.  Now, if it was not for the many contradictions between the narratives of the Torah and their retellings in the Quran, as well as between Mosaic Law and the Quran's sparse comments on justice, Islam would be logically possible; that is, it could have been true even if it is not.  There is not just one place where the Islamic text says the Torah and even the gospel are from God, as if once is not enough, and the Quran repeatedly contradicts the Pentateuch.

It is not the Quran taking manslaughter less seriously than Numbers and Deuteronomy that means its doctrines on this issue are false.  A given moral idea simply being harsher or less harsh than another one, unless there is some inherent contradiction in one of the ideas, has nothing to do with whether it is true or erroneous.  Since the Quran says the Torah is true, and the Torah does not concur with it on a great many things, the proper handling of manslaughter among them, the Quran cannot be true wherever it does not align with its own prerequisite.  The Torah says a manslaughterer can be killed without murder, whether the dead person is a Jew or not, despite being entitled to flee to cities of refuge.  The Quran, as it says the Torah is true, states that a Muslim who accidentally kills a fellow Muslim is to free a slave and give compensation or fast for two months.