Talk to a typical person with exposure to the Bible (or to hearsay about the Bible) or stumble onto miscellaneous websites, and it is easy to come across the claim that women are not Biblically allowed to own property, or at least not unless they lack a male relative to provide for them. Since this is never said plainly as some suggest, the person making this claim must rely on non sequitur interpretations of scattered passages, often in the Old Testament. Various things go ignored by such people: the total lack of condemnation of female property ownership anywhere in the Bible, the fact that women are expressly required to make restitution and offer sacrifices [1] in verses like Numbers 5:5-8 and Leviticus 12:6-8 (which would depend upon them having access to their own incomes or resources), and the codification of inheritance going to daughters in Numbers 27. Then, there is the woman of Proverbs 31 held up as exemplary, who, although married, has many of her own independent resources and business ventures.
I was surprised as a new rationalist (at the time of this post's scheduled release, a little over 10 years ago!) to find myself hearing of people who thought that women are, on the Biblical worldview, incapable of or unfit for having property or managing it. Making no assumptions, I found no hint of this anywhere in the Bible as I read various portions both with and without reacting to other people's assertions—not even in the Old Testament and its Torah laws, which especially bear the reputation of sexism against women. I also found verses insisting on the very opposite, not in the sense that men sin by having property or that they are psychologically unfit for it, but in the sense that women can or should have their own property. As the years went by, I only discovered more verses like these!
Many verses directly approve of women having personal property entirely apart from a male relative. Because of its sheer centrality out of all the books in the Bible and because it is the one broad place where God discloses so many details about morality with precision, the Torah (the first five books of the Old Testament) is the most foundational area of the Bible to search through. And it does discuss or pertain to this very issue in verses besides the ones mentioned in the opening paragraph. One such verse is Deuteronomy 24:17. The explicit example addressed is a widow, whose cloak should not be demanded or taken as security for a loan. As simple as an article of property like a cloak is, it is hers, or else it could not be taken from her and could not be immoral to do so.
Deuteronomy 24:17—"Do not deprive the foreigner or the fatherless of justice, or take the cloak of the widow as a pledge."
Of great importance is that this straightforward verse and others do not say that only a widow can permissibly have her own property, unlike a married/engaged woman, a single woman, or a young girl. It is not that a woman can only legitimately have property, at least of certain kinds, if she marries and her husband dies, leaving her with his belongings. With a simple declaration, the verse prohibits an action that could only be done if widows do indeed have belongings, though. If women should not possess property, then widows would not be an exception. They are women, after all. I again point out that the verse in no way restricts female property ownership to widows only. The prescription is actually that widows as opposed to other women and men should not be deprived of their cloak as a means of taking a pledge, collateral for a loan given to a separate party.
Any woman or man is morally free to have their own clothes, tools, books, and so on, and it is generally allowed, based on this very verse and other passages like the preceding Deuteronomy 24:10-13 as well as the lack of condemnation, that these items be used as a pledge. However, an object used as a means of generating a necessary income should never be taken in any situation, for this would by extension render someone's immediate livelihood subject to potential permanent seizure if the debt cannot be repaid (Deuteronomy 24:6). The cloak of a widow is also particularly forbidden as collateral; other women could validly offer theirs. What of Biblical and not the purely logical reasons (the equivalence of men and women as humans, the falsity of stereotypes and any philosophy standing on them, and the irrelevance of gender to having/using a cloak) why widows do not have the right to better treatment over widowers and other men in this matter?
The earlier part of Deuteronomy 24:17 does not say or necessitate that only foreigners and the fatherless should not be deprived of justice. It focuses on condemnation of treating particularly vulnerable groups of people unjustly, with other miscellaneous groups also being specially vulnerable in certain ways. Logically, justice is about how someone should be treated, so the scope of justice would not apply only to foreigners and the fatherless, and Deuteronomy 24:17 itself gives one example of just treatment pertaining to widows. The latter section of the verse is likewise about not oppressing a particular subcategory of people rather than discrimination in their favor on the basis of gender. Then, other parts of Deuteronomy emphasize gender equality in general (including but far from limited to verses 5:12-14, 16, 12:12, 18, 31, 17:2-5, and 22:5) and strict divine impartiality, which is at one point brought up as a basis for not excluding widows (10:17-18), not as a basis for discrimination against widowers or other men, which is by nature irrational and immoral for the same reasons as the inverse and incompatible with impartiality [2]. More verses outside of Deuteronomy are also certainly relevant, such as Genesis 1:27.
Of course, a rational being would be impartial when it comes to all irrelevant factors, and Yahweh does not discriminate against women in matters of property to begin with, gender being entirely unrelated to the capacity to own or utilize property. And at an earlier point in Deuteronomy, another set of prescriptions deals with male and female servants/slaves alike receiving material wealth upon going free. In conjunction with the human right held up in Exodus 21:26-27, Deuteronomy 15:12-14 details how a slave victimized by their master or mistress must be allowed to go free with such an abundance:
Deuteronomy 15:12-14—"If any of your people—Hebrew men or women—sell themselves to you and serve you six years, in the seventh year you must let them go free. And when you release them, do not send them away empty-handed. Supply them liberally from your flock, your threshing floor and your winepress. Give to them as the Lord your God has blessed you."
Even a female slave, along with a male slave, is never forbidden from having property and also has the right to be given animals and other property at emancipation. Indeed, it is evil to not grant her this according to Deuteronomy 15. A woman would not have to be a widow to be free to become a servant and have her labor entitle her to payment during the servitude (the person does sell themself according to Exodus 21:2 and Deuteronomy 15:12, which requires the receiving of money, such as in the form of a wage) as well as a type of severance payment afterward. Because the free have all the basic rights of a slave, besides all other reasons why the following would be true, free women would also have the Biblical right to pursue any morally legitimate occupation, such as farming or commercial trading, to establish their own property and security.
On Judeo-Christianity, there is a human right to property ownership for men and women, regardless of marital status and even for slaves. It would be very clear to the one who reads the Bible without making assumptions that it does not treat women possessing property as immoral or abnormal. Women are fully human along with men, as Genesis draws attention to. More than once in Deuteronomy alone, a woman's right to her own belongings is affirmed. This set of direct affirmations even comes relatively early in the Old Testament. A fool might, it is true, still misunderstand both of them or anything else necessitated by logic about other aspects of Judeo-Christianity. The acknowledgments remain there for any willing person to discover!





















