Nothing in the allegedly misogynistic Mosaic Law contradicts these truths. First of all, the Bible never says, not in the Torah or elsewhere, that women cannot own belongings (and as I love to point out in many ways, it goes further and says to not add to God's commands in Deuteronomy 4:2 and 12:32). It also explicitly teaches that they can, as will be directly addressed later below. There is a set of passages that might seem at first to some people as if they teach that sons must inherit property before women, though these ideas could only be assumed to be put forth in the text--and this also would not be a prohibition of them obtaining property through other means on their own. In Numbers 27:1-8, when Zelophehod's daughters come to Moses because their father has died and left no sons, God tells Moses that they should certainly inherit their father's belongings and that if a person has no sons, the inheritance must go to daughters if there are any.
The text plainly does not say that property must always be given to male children first and directly presents the right of women to have possessions and inheritances. It says if there are no sons, inheritance must be given to daughters. This only entails that property cannot be withheld from female descendants merely because they are women when there are no boys; what it says is that property cannot be redistributed outside of the immediate family if there are daughters who can take it. In other words, it is sinful to skip over them just because they are women. Again, like Deuteronomy 21:15-17, Numbers 27:8 does not say that men must receive family property first. Any historical or narrative practices of the Israelites contrary to this simply do not reflect the actual concepts articulated in Mosaic Law, which here and in numerous other places affirms the gender equality and egalitarianism of Genesis 1:26-27. Joshua 17:3-5 also references this incident with the daughters of Zelophehod.
Many other direct or indirect affirmations of how women can have property like men are found in the Torah. Aside from the ramifications of Genesis 1:26-27 alone with no statements to the contrary, women could become servants and were to be freed for the same reasons as male servants, which entitled them to be released with animals and other resources (Exodus 21:26-27, Deuteronomy 15:12-17). People would have done this to pay off an ordinary debt or to earn restitution money if they did not have enough to pay their victims of thefts or certain assaults (Exodus 22:3). Also, Numbers 5:5-7 very clearly mentions men and women, not even relying on the English male words for many gender neutral commands [1], as having the same right to receive restitution or obligation to pay restitution as needed, which could only be done if women and men both had money or property to give, or means of generating an income. Leviticus 12 says that women who give birth must offer animals they can afford afterward, which, again, requires that they have belongings like animals or means of paying for them.
On their own, any of these things affirm that women of course are Biblically permitted to own property, married or not, just like men. In fact, Numbers 36:6 says that Zelophehod's daughters Mahlah, Noah, Hoglah, Milkah, and Tirzah were free to marry anyone they wished as long as it was within their tribe (for reasons having to do with the Year of Jubilee). Women are allowed to have possessions and work for personal money or to pay off debts, and they are no less obligated than men, for obvious reasons of logical equivalence of both the sin and the person responsible for it, to make restitution from their money and property if they sin in an applicable way (see Exodus 21:18-19 or 22:1 for examples). The Bible never denies any of this, teaches things from which all of this would follow by logical necessity already even if nothing more was said, and goes out of its way to emphasize in multiple ways that women can own property that is theirs, not even just co-owned along with a husband.
[1]. See here:
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