First of all, execution, or any other criminal punishment for that matter, was reserved exclusively for the civil government and could not be enacted without the testimony of two or three honest witnesses.
--Numbers 35:30--"But no one is to be put to death on the testimony of only one witness."
--Deuteronomy 17:6--"On the testimony of two or three witnesses a man shall be put to death, but no one shall be put to death on the testimony of only one witness."
--Deuteronomy 19:15--"One witness is not enough to convict a man of any crime or offense he may have committed. A matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses."
The honesty of the witnesses was crucial because if they maliciously contrived a story to illicitly frame an innocent person they would receive the exact penalty the crime they accused the other of would have been given (Deuteronomy 19:16-21). There was to be no extra-legal killing by civilians other than proportionate self-defense in limited scenarios, like if a thief entered a home at night and the owner didn't know his or her intent (Exodus 22:2-3) and if someone was attempting to murder, kidnap, or rape the one acting in self-defense. A civilian who killed another, even an unconvicted criminal, would be charged with murder on the testimony of two or three witnesses and executed himself or herself. They would have violated the numerous warnings against vigilantism, revenge, and murder throughout the Mosaic Law. Even "life for life" did not mean murder for murder.
The Bible is full of examples of people committing evils they should have been executed for. Joseph's brothers kidnapped and sold him, and slave traders purchased him (Genesis 37). Potiphar's wife falsely accused Joseph of rape, though she had perhaps almost raped him herself [3] (Genesis 39). David and Bathsheba committed adultery together (2 Samuel 11). Amnon raped his sister (2 Samuel 13). Jezebel arranged for perjury that led to the execution of an innocent man named Naboth (1 Kings 21). Mosaic Law would have appropriately condemned all of these depraved people to death.
Conservative evangelical Christians can often hold a very contradictory and hypocritical stance on capital punishment. On one hand, many of them support it in the case of premeditated murder, citing passages like Exodus 21:12-14 as justification. But they will likely also tell you that God has released people from an obligation to Mosaic Law, so sins like adultery and bestiality no longer deserve death inflicted by the civil government. They may even trivialize rape and try to differentiate its severity from that of murder, though Deuteronomy 22:25-27 does the exact opposite. But the whole time they are quoting part of Mosaic Law and the Old Testament to advocate the death penalty for murderers while rejecting the death penalty for most or all other capital crimes in the Bible, including crimes that can be far worse than any murder. Kidnapping someone and confining or abusing them for years or even decades is far worse than murder, as are many instances of rape or gang-rape. Torturing someone in certain ways or for certain durations of time is far worse than murder. Yet conservatives (both political conservatives and conservative Christians) may disregard the Bible and reason and pretend that murder is the worst sin imaginable and that God only wants murder punished with death.
Governments have employed a wide spectrum of grotesque methods of execution throughout history. People, in the name of "justice", have committed atrocities like slowly excoriating the skin from a criminal's body, torturing people to death over a period of multiple days by crucifixion, allowing insects to slowly consume a live victim, dispatching animals to torment and kill criminals, and many other unjust forms of death, all inflicting the maximum level of cruelty and humiliation they thought necessary or enjoyable to participate in. People in modern America can be of the false persuasion that all civil executions are barbarous and cruel, but they are only cruel when conducted in a sadistic and degrading manner or when applied to non-capital offenses.
So when people object to the stoning commanded in the Bible, they usually do so in ignorance of how cruel humans can truly become when they operate apart from Mosaic Law. Stoning was not as harsh as it sounds to uneducated modern people, who sometimes assume it was artificially prolonged and engineered to be as painful as possible. As the predominant method of death prescribed in Mosaic Law, it enabled the community to witness the punishment for certain evils. The Bible mentions it in passages about the punishment for sorcery (Leviticus 20:27), incorrigible disobedience to parents (Deuteronomy 21:18-21), and sex with an engaged person (Deuteronomy 22:23-24). It was usually quite brief, especially considering the way the Jews intended to carry it out.
Such extreme and gratuitous torture as found in the Gentile nations usually only results from either the elevation of deterrence to the main priority of justice or majority agreement that a particular instance of a crime is so heinous that it deserves a sadistic and prolonged punishment. The Bible already has measures in place to prevent either of these from occurring. Deterrence, while definitely present in Mosaic Law (Deuteronomy 19:20 and 21:21, for instance), is not the primary consideration in civil justice; it is more of a secondary benefit or side effect, with justice consisting almost wholly of what a crime deserves by nature of its depravity. As for sating the peoples' appetite for punishment, Exodus 23:2 commands us to not follow the crowd in doing wrong and to not allow them to persuade us to pervert justice in any fashion, whether favoritism, bribery, barbarity, or letting a wicked person go free unpunished. Anything that rests in the hands of the majority is not safe indeed. So God already prepared laws anticipating both of these abominations. If deterrence is all that matters, government agents could call for rape, sadism, complete degradation, inhumanity, punishment of relatives of the criminal, and the worst and longest of tortures. If satisfying the fluctuating emotions of a crazed mass of people is the most important part of justice, then justice is relative to the majority's desires and therefore there is no such thing as objective justice. Societal and emotional factors have led to people killing family members of a criminal, executing people for trivial or otherwise non-capital sins, and inflicting unimaginable torments on people. God, on the contrary, says that justice cannot be determined or changed by the masses, that it is immutable, that a criminal who has committed a capital crime must die instead of his or her family members (Deuteronomy 24:16), and that punishment must not be degrading, inhumane, or excessive (Deuteronomy 25:1-3).
After death, Deuteronomy 21:22-23 permitted the corpse of a capital criminal to be temporarily displayed in public. This was not intended to represent some sadistic and disrespectful act, but would serve as a potent warning to other men and women who viewed the body. It would remind them that kidnapping, slave trading, murder, negligent homicide, adultery, bestiality, striking one's parent(s), sorcery, rape, and a handful of other crimes did carry the capital sentence and would therefore help with deterrence. But even though the criminal was dead, God did not allow his or her body to remain displayed for longer than a day. This, again, separates Israel's capital punishments from those of other nations, who disregarded the corpses of enemies and offenders and would let them be mutilated, consumed by animals, and insulted by others.
Humanity normally succumbs to error by making many crimes punishable by death or by trying to eradicate capital punishment from all but one crime or from existence. In some cultures simple crimes like theft and trespassing have been punished by execution, while other societies have attempted to purge the entire concept from the legal system. God clearly expresses displeasure at both extremes and did not leave the solution obscure or unknowable. Capital punishment is most certainly an unalienable part of true justice, but its necessity and presence, like the necessity of all other forms of justice, should offer a sobering reminder of the corruption that can seize individuals and societies.
[1]. http://thechristianrationalist.blogspot.com/2016/07/capital-crimes-part-1.html
[2]. http://thechristianrationalist.blogspot.com/2016/07/capital-crimes-part-2.html
[3]. It is clear that Potiphar's wife had been sexually harassing Joseph for a prolonged period of time and there are numerous documented examples of female rape of males; the text of Genesis 39 definitely implies attempted rape-like behavior by Potiphar's unnamed wife. Contrary to the assumed position that unthinking people accept blindly, it is neither impossible nor entirely uncommon for a woman to sexually assault and force herself sexually on a man.
How do you know sex was not a sin the exodus 22:16, when you say many crimes in the bible went without being punished? Maybe this is also an example of a crime like that.
ReplyDeleteI've heard someone argue that the whole chapter of exodus 22 deals with paying people back for their crimes to make up for it so death penalty isn't involved here for that reason. Earlier in the chapter stealing isn't punished by death but that does not mean it's not a sin.
While other behaviors might be actively condemned even though they aren't assigned a particular penalty in Mosaic Law, Exodus 22:16-17 does not actually condemn what many Christians would call premarital sex. It simply prescribes commitment. Theft is specifically prohibited and given a punishment, but marrying a person is hardly a punishment by default! However, this is exactly what Exodus 22:16-17 prescribes after premarital sex. These verses do condemn promiscuity, as sleeping around without any commitment would violate the instructions therein. A legal marriage is not a requirement for lifelong commitment, and Exodus 22:16-17 at most only condemns noncommittal sex.
DeleteThank you for your response. Why then is prostitution not condemned? There is no punishment for a prostitute anywhere.
ReplyDeleteProstitution is noncommittal sex for payment, potentially with many partners, so there is a vast difference between prostitution and premarital sex in a committed relationship. Mosaic Law does clarify that prostitution is indeed sinful: Deuteronomy 23:17-18 prohibits men and women from becoming shrine prostitutes, Leviticus 19:29 condemns making one's daughter (or son by logical extension) a prostitute, and Leviticus 21:9 prescribes execution by fire for a priest's daughter who engages in voluntary prostitution. At least when a priest's child is involved (again, moral obligations and just penalties apply to both men and women by logical extension), prostitution is assigned a penalty.
DeleteEven if a specific legal punishment was never attached to any form of prostitution in Mosaic Law, it is still clear that the Bible opposes prostitution itself. Not all sins have the metaphysical status of crimes that deserve active punishment by other people, after all. Either way, premarital sex and prostitution would not be identical. Consensual sex between a man and woman who are engaged to each other or who sincerely intend to remain life partners is quite distinct from a man or woman having sex with random clients for payment.
What would be your take on this quote from the website got questions.org?:
ReplyDelete"To define porneia in 1 Corinthians 7:2 as prostitution or incest or some other sexual perversion does not make sense if premarital sex is not also a perversion. If premarital sex is not a sin, why is prostitution a sin? Both involve consenting adults. It is biblically clear that marriage is the sanctifying factor in sex. Sex in marriage is good and right. Sex outside of and/or before marriage is a sinful perversion."
Incest has nothing to do with the issue of premarital sex in itself, and Leviticus 18 and 20 condemn incest simply because it involves family members. The very fact that Mosaic Law lists so many specific manifestations of incest makes this clear. Even on a conceptual level, incest does not have to involve premarital sex. As for prostitution, my earlier comment summarizes why having promiscuous sex for money is objectively different than "premarital" sex in general: "Consensual sex between a man and woman who are engaged to each other or who sincerely intend to remain life partners is quite distinct from a man or woman having sex with random clients for payment." The author you quoted is fallaciously equating different behaviors to defend an unbiblical tradition, and I wouldn't be surprised if they also condemned other forms of sexual expression that do not violate any Biblical command.
DeleteIf the Bible does not condemn something directly ("Do not murder") or by logical extension (for example, if having sex with someone without their consent is wrong as Deuteronomy 22:25-27 teaches, then pedophilia is wrong because young children almost certainly cannot understand sexual consent in any thorough way), it is not sinful. Deuteronomy 4:2, Matthew 15:3-9, Romans 7:7, and 1 John 3:4 collectively clarify that adding to God's moral revelation is itself sinful because sin is nothing other than violating the revealed moral laws corresponding to God's nature. On the Biblical worldview, there is no such thing as a sin that is not actually condemned by the Bible in some way.
Thank you, that makes a lot of sense.
ReplyDeleteYou're welcome! Premarital sex is simply not the inherently sinful thing many Christians describe it as. Promiscuity is very different from simple premarital sex, but the modern church is so immersed in prudery and tradition that to even suggest such a thing is often upsetting.
DeleteYou say that exodus 22 condemns uncommitted sex, but verse 17 says if the father refuses to the marriage, he guy has to pay the dowery. So it's really about the family losing the money that the virgin would be worth, not about commitment. Even if it was, a father wouldn't want his daughter to marry a guy she had a one night stand with so she wouldn't have to marry him.
ReplyDeleteSorry for the late reply! It was a busy week.
DeleteThe case law in Exodus 22:16-17 wouldn't apply if there was already mutual commitment when the man and woman had sex, as it specifies that they are neither engaged nor married. Since there is only a superficial difference at most between a legal marriage and genuine personal commitment, commitment is indeed a significant factor in those verses. Even if Exodus 22:16-17 was primarily about what you suggested, the morality of sex before a legal marriage is unaffected.
So are you saying a woman has to marry the first man she ever sleeps with? What if she had slept with another man after?
ReplyDeleteFirst of all, men aren't held to a different moral standard than women, so if women should marry the first men they sleep with, the opposite is also true. Second, polyamorous marriages are not inherently contrary to Biblical morality (Deuteronomy 4:2), so having multiple spouses isn't wrong. However, commitment is once again one of the primary issues, and once a couple is united, they cannot have noncommittal sex with random people without committing adultery (as at that point it would be a married man or woman sleeping with someone else they are not married to). Men and women alike still have no excuse for sleeping with someone without any thought as to whether they are willing to be committed to that person, and thus the fact that premarital sex isn't immoral on its own doesn't mean that there are no serious considerations to make before a single man and woman have sex.
DeleteWhat about deut 22:21 where the woman was said to "play the harlot" was she an actual prostitute so was harlot a derogatory term meaning she slept with someone before marriage?
ReplyDeleteSomeone isn't literally a prostitute unless they have sex with people for payment. Prostitution is Biblically immoral precisely because the sex is not based on commitment, not because it occurs outside of a legal marriage.
DeleteI was just asking is "play the harlot" in that context mean just being permiscuios because there is nothing else in the context saying she was a literal prostitute.
ReplyDeleteEither way, lack of commitment is the determining factor as to whether premarital sex is morally permissible. The hypothetical woman in Deuteronomy 21:13-21 may not be a literal prostitute, but she is being charged with promiscuity before her marriage after implying or saying she was a virgin beforehand. Since Exodus 22:16-17 doesn't absolutely force all men and women who sleep together to get married (it provides the parents the option to discourage marriage), Deuteronomy 21 would contradict Exodus 22 if the former was not talking about cases where the woman was said to be a virgin beforehand and lied.
DeleteWhat I'm saying is if she just slept with one other man before her husband and she wasn't a prostitute, it calls that "pornè" meaning prostitute. So if that is a non-literal prostitute, then that can be part of the meaning of "porneia" translated as fornication. So whenever it condemns fornication (porneia) it can also condemn sleeping with anyone outside marriage committed or not.
ReplyDeleteThe fact that legal marriages are social constructs to begin with automatically means that legal status has little to nothing to do with sexual morality in the first place, all linguistics aside. If something is truly immoral, it is immoral regardless of time and place, and yet there was a time before human governments according to the Bible's own account of history. Did all couples that had sex in that context sin automatically? Of course not! However, if premarital sex (the evangelical definition of it) is/was itself sinful, it would have been immoral for the human species to even continue procreating until the point when governments formed.
DeleteNo Christian I've ever talked to is even truly consistent when they say that a legal marriage legitimizes a sexual relationship--if so, that would contradict the universal Biblical condemnation of homosexual behaviors. The legal status of a relationship either can or can't validate a sexual relationship; both can't be true at once. If homosexual behaviors remain sinful regardless of legal marital status, then the issue has nothing to do with legal marriage at all. Likewise, a couple having sex is permissible or immoral for reasons completely unrelated to whether they are legally married.
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ReplyDeleteThat's a good point but doesn't the verse mean that she just slept with one person before her husband and not an actual prostitute? It just was proven she was not a virgin and then says she played the harlot. There is no evidence to suggest she was a prostitute. So then even sleeping with one person before your husband can mean "harlotly" and fornication can be "harlotly". Do you see what I mean?
ReplyDeleteThat point alone refutes the idea that governmental or social approval is necessary to make sex between a man and woman who are not committing rape, incest, or adultery morally legitimate. However, Deuteronomy 22 isn't referring to all cases of premarital sex; the verses in question are talking about a specific case where a woman who was promiscuous before marrying someone deceived her husband about her sexual history in some way. Promiscuity is immoral by Biblical standards, as is lying, but sex is not immoral because of a piece of paper or ceremony. Verse 21 even mentions promiscuity specifically. If the woman had not lied about her sexual history, there would be no need to even have this law, and the passage would then contradict Exodus 22:16-17, which clearly does not prescribe capital punishment for single men and woman who sleep together before marriage even if the sex is noncommittal.
DeleteI think that would be conclusive edivence that any sex before marriage would be a sin..
ReplyDeleteDeuteronomy 22:13-21 still wouldn't apply to all premarital or extramarital sex for the reasons mentioned in my previous comment.
DeleteThat clears things up thank you. There is also traditional jewish scholars that say these verses actually refer to the woman committing adultry in the betrothal period too
ReplyDeleteShortly after, verses 23-24 actually address a situation where a man has sex with a woman engaged to another man. Deuteronomy 22:13-21 certainly could apply in situations where an engaged person was promiscuous.
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